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Certifications / DC
Last post by Richard - Nov 16, 2023, 10:23 AMWhich of the following is NOT a function of derivative classification?
A. Creating new classified materials from properly marked, existing classified source materials and marking them accordigly.
B. Extracting, paraphrasing, restating, or generating in a new form, information that is already classified.
C. Carrying forward the correct classification level for classified information used to generate new materials or documents.
D: Making an initial determination that information requires protection against unauthorized disclosure in the interest of national security.
Which of the following are authorized sources for derivative classification?
A: A properly marked source dicument
B. DODM 5100.76
C. You level of expertise with the document
D: SCG
E. NISPOM
F. The FSO or SM
---
&&&&&&&&&
Derivative classification is:
A. Duplicating or reproducing existing classified documents or material.
B. Only performed by appointed personnel.
C: The process of using existing classified information to create new documents or material and marking the new material consistent with the classification markings that apply to the source information.
D. The initial determination that information requires protection against unauthorized disclosure in the interest of national security.
Why must derivative classifiers use authorized sources of classification guidance only?
A. Other sources cannot be trusted.
B. General rules about classification are often wrong.
C: To ensure original classification of information is maintained.
D. There are no other sources.
Select ALL the correct responses. Derivative classifiers must:
A: Have access to classification guidance
B. Question classifications assigned by the OCA and correct them immediately to protect national security
C: Analyze and evaluate information to identify elements that require classification
D. Develop a clear, unambiguous method of marking classified information
All of the following are steps in derivative classification except:
A. Carrying forward that determination into new material.
B: Making the initial determination that information requires protection against unauthorized disclosure in the interest of national security.
C. Marking the information to show its classified status.
D. Determining wether information has been classified properly.
All of the following are steps in derivative classification EXCEPT:
A. Analyze material to be classified.
B. Seek additional guidance to resolve uncertainty.
C: Make recommendations for others to mark the new document.
D. Use authorized sources for guidance.
A Security Classification Guide (SCG) is:
A: A collection of precise, comprehensive guidance about specific program, system, operation, or weapon system elements of information to be classified.
B. A document that provides basic guidance and regulatory requirements for the DOD Information Security Program.
C. An existing classified document, from which information is extracted, paraphrased, restated, and/or generated in a new form for inclusion in another document.
D. A document that defines how to mark a classified document.
If the authorized sources do not provide sufficient guidance, you should FIRST:
A. Rely on your memory
B: Ask your Security Manager or Facility Security Officer (FSO)
C. Ask the OCA
D. Ask your Quality Assurance Manager
Information taken from an existing classified source and generated into another form or medium, such as a video, DVD, or CD is an example of _______
A. Extracting
B. Paraphrasing
C: Generating
D. Downloading
Select ALL the correct responses. The concept of "revealed by" includes which of the following?
A: Classified information comes from an authorized source into a new document.
B: reader can deduce the classified information by performing additional interpretation or analysis.
C: No additional interpretation or analysis is needed to determine the classification of the information.
D: Classified information is not clearly or explicitly stated in the source document.
The source document states:
(S) The process takes three hours to complete.
The new document states:
(S) The process takes three hours to complete.
Which concept was used to determine the derivative classification of the new document?
A: Contained in
B. Extension
C. Classification by Compilation
D. Revealed by
The source document states:
(S) The exercise will begin on 4 May and end on 25 May
(U) Elements of this unit will participate in the exercise
(U) Unit members participating will be Barkley and James
The Security Classification Guide (SCG) states:
(U) Which unit will participate in the exercise
(S) Exercise dates
(U) Participating members of the unit
The new document states:
(S) Barkley and James cannot attend training during the exercise. They must attend before 4 May or after 25 May.
Identify the concept used to determine the derivative classification of the new document.
A. Contained in
B. Directed by
C: Revealed by
D. Classification by compilation
Is it possible for classification to be raised if your new material combines pieces of information that are not individually classified? If so, what concept is used to derivatively classify the statement in the new document?
A. Directed by
B. Contained in
C: Classification by Compilation
D. Revealed by
Besides protecting national security, information may be classified if it:
A: Pertains to military plans, weapon systems or operations
B. Seems like it should be classified
C. Prevents dissemination to other organizations
D. Prevents embarrassment
Information may be classified if it is owned by the U.S. Government, its unauthorized disclosure could embarrass the Government but not harm national security, and it concerns failed scientific research.
A. True
B: False
To promote information sharing, certain guidelines must be followed in DOD Manual 5200.01, Volumes 1 and 3, when classifying and marking information.
A. True
B: False
You may be subject to criminal sanctions, such as incarceration, if you engage in the unauthorized disclosure of information.
A: True
B. False
If you are a military personnel and you knowingly leaked classified information to an unauthorized user, what sanctions might be imposed on you?
A: Incarceration.
B: Loss of pay.
C: Dishonorable discharge.
D. None, since you thought the user had the proper need-to-know and security eligibility to receive the information.
Which of the following are Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) sanctions?
A. Dishonorable discharge
B. Incarceration
C. Loss of rank
D: All of the above
You formally challenge the classification of information and the classifying agency provides a partial response. What is your recourse if the classifying agency does not provide a full response within 120 days?
A. Re-classify the information at the level you believe is correct and communicate the new classification via a revised Security Classification Guide (SCG).
B: Have the right to forward the challenge to the Interagency Security Classification Appeals Panel (ISCAP).
C. Drop the challenge.
D. Contact another OCA until you get the answer you desire.
The source document states:
(S) The exercise will begin on 4 May and end on 25 May
(U) Elements of this unit will participate in the exercise
(U) Unit members participating will be Barkley and James
The Security Classification Guide (SCG) states:
(U) The unit will participate in the exercise
(S) The exercise dates
(U) Participating members of the unit
The new document states:
The exercise will begin 4 May and end on 25 May.
What is the classification of the new document?
A. Confidential
B. Top Secret
C. Unclassified
D: Secret
The document that provides basic guidance and regulatory requirements for derivative classification for DoD personnel is:
A. Executive Order 12968, Acces to Classified Information
B. Dod 5200.1-M, Information Management Manual
C. Dod 5220.22-M, National Industrial Security Operating Manual (NISPOM)
D: DoDM 5200.01, Volumes 1-4, DoD Information Securitu Program
Who bears principal responsibility for derivative classification accuracy in new products?
A. Supervisors of derivative classifiers
B. Original classifiers
C: Derivative classifiers
D. Quality assurance managers
When derivatively classifying a document one must carefully analyze the material they classify.
A: True
B. False
Which is the primary source for derivative classification?
A. Properly marked source document
B. Classified working paper
C. An organizational Standing Operating Procedure (SOP)
D: Security Classification Guide (SCG)
Each of these ways of incorporating classified source material into new material except:
A. Extracting
B: Planning
C. Generating
D. Paraphrasing/Restating
All of the following are concepts you can use to determine the classification level of the material you create EXCEPT:
A. Classification by Compilation
B. Revealed by
C: Directed by
D. Contained in
When derivative classifiers incorporate classified information from existing content into a new document, and no additional interpretation or analysis is needed to deduce the classification of that information, that is an example of the concept of _______
A: Contained in
B. Directed by
C. Revealed by
D. Classification by Compilation
Which of the following statements apply to the classification concept of "Revealed by"?
A: Needs additional interpretation or analysis to deduce the classification.
B. Applies when information is extracted word-for-word, paraphrased, or restated.
C. Applies when information is contained in Security Classification Guides (SCGs).
D. Explains the basis for classification on the face of the document or text.
The concept that involves combining or associating individual elements of unclassified information to reveal an additional association or relationship that warrants protection is called ________
A. Contained in
B: Classification by Compilation
C. Revealed by
D. Directed by
In order to classify information, the information must concern at least one of the _____ categories specified in Executive Order 13526.
A. 3
B. 10
C: 8
D. 5
Cleared contractor employees are subject to sanctions for violating any policies in the:
A. DODM 5200.01, DOD Information Security Program
B. DODM 5105.21, Sensitive Compartmented Information (SCI) Administrative Security Manual
C: National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM)
D. DODM 5200.02, Procedures for the DOD Personnel Security Program
Which of the following are criminal sanctions?
A. Loss of Federal retirement benefits
B. Fines
C. Incarceration
D: All of the above
The properly marked source document states:
(C) The training exercise will last three days
(S) The training exercise will begin 21 April
The Security Classification Guide (SCG) states:
(C) The length of the training exercise
(S) The dates of the training exercise
The new document states:
( ) The training exercise lasts three days, ending on 24 April.
What is the classification of the statement in the new document?
A. Unclassified
B: Secret
C. Confidential
D. Top Secret
========================
_____________
The process of determining wether informationm has already been originally classified, and if it has, ensuring that it continues to be identified as classified by markings or similar means when included in newly created materials is called:
A. Management classification
B. Original classification
C. Responsible classification
D: Derivative classification
Each of these ways of incorporating classified source material into new material except:
A. Extracting
B: Planning
C. Generating
D. Paraphrasing/Restating
Who is responsible for providing contractors proper classification guidance during the performance for a contract?
A. Security Manager
B. Facility Security Officer (FSO)
C: Goverment Contracting Activity (GCA)
All cleared DoD civilian, military, and contractor personnel who generate or create classified material from authorized classified sources are derivative classifieers.
A: True
B. False
If the classification in the existing content seems incorrect, or there is conflicting guidance from authorized sources, you are required to seek further guidance.
A: True
B. False
One of the most important responsibilities derivative classifiers have is to analyze and correct the original classification authority's decisions.
A. True
B: False
Information taken directly from an existing classified source and stated verbatim in a new or different document is an example of *.
A. Restating
B: Extracting
C. Generating
D. Paraphrasing
When using the derivative classification concept of compilation, you must place a clearly worded explanation of the basis for classification by complilation in the face of the document or include it in the text.
A: True
B. False
[] What concept is used to derivatively classify the new document?
A: Revealed by
B. Classification by Compilation
C. Contained in
D. Directives
You may be subject to administrative, Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ), or criminal sanctions if you engage in any of the following except:
A. Improperly classifying or continuing classification of information
B: Submitting a formal challenge to information that may be improperly classified
C. Creating or continuting a Special Access Program (SAP) against DoD policy
D. Unauthorized disclosure of classified information
All of the following are responsibilities of derivative classifiers except:
A. Derivative classifiers must possess expertise in the subject matter on which thay are creating documentation, as well as classified management and marking techniques.
B: Derivative classifiers must have original classification authority.
C. Derivative classifiers must understand derivative classification policies and procedures.
D. Derivative classifiers must have ready access to classification guidance.
Which of the following is an authorized source for derivative classification?
A. Subject matter expert's (SME) opinion
B. Working paper
C. a and b
D. a only
E: None of the above
"Contained in" applies when a properly marked souce document contains classified information that has been extracted word-for-word and placed into the new document.
A: True
B. False
Because of the importace of classification, but also its inherent limitaions and costs, it is crucial that derivative classifiers follow appropriate procedures and observe all requirements.
A: True
B. False
All of the following are ways to promote the sharing of information within the Federal government, across the state, local, and tribal governments and with coalition partners, law enforcement, and the general public except:
A: Use dissemination control markings
B. Avoid over-classification
C. Avoid unnecessary classification
To be classified or maintained as classified, information must meet all of the following criteria except:
A. The unauthorized disclosure of the information must be reasonably expected to cause damage, serious damage, or exceptionally grave damage to national security.
B. The information must concern at least one fo the eight categories specified in Section 1.4 of Executive Order 13526.
C. The information must be owned by, produced by or for, or under the control of the U.S. government.
D: The unauthorized disclosure of the information couse cause embarrassment to the U.S. Governemnt.
Only people with authority to make original classification decisions may derivativelt classify documents.
A. True
B: Flase
DoD and contractor personnel must receive initial training in the proper application of derivative classification principles prior to derivatively classifying any materials and they must receive refresher training at least once every * years or their derivative classification authority is suspended.
A. Three
B: Two
C. Five
Select the true statement concerning derivative classification.
A. Only appointed individuals may perform derivative classification.
B. Consulting your Facility Security Officer or security manager is the first step in the derivative classification process.
C. Photocopying a Secret document and marking the photocopy Secret is derivative classification.
D: Derivative classifiers are responsible for analyzing and evaluating information to identify elements that require classification.
Which of the following statements apply to the classification concept of classification by compilation?
A: Applies when two pieces of information cause for classification or increase in classification.
B. Applies when information is extracted word-for-word, paraphrased, or restarted.
C. Additional interpretation or analysis is needed to deduce the classification.
D. Applies when information is contained in Security Classification Guides (SCGs).
If you suspect information has been improperly or unnecessarily classified, what should you do first?
A. Initiate a formal challenge.
B: Discuss you concerns with you security manager or supervisor.
C. Contact the original classification authority.
Which of the following is a valid reason to classify information?
A: To protect national security
B. To restrain competition
C. To prevent embarrassment
D. To conceal violations of law, inefficiencies, or errors
E. To protect scientific research not related to national security.
[
***A Security Classification Guide (SCG) is:
A. A document that defines how to mark a classified document.
B. A document that provides basic guidance and regulatory requirements for the DoD Information Security Program.
C. An existing classified document, from which information is extracted, paraphrased, restarted, and/or generated in a new form for inclusion in another document.
D: A collection if precise, comprehensive guidance about specific program, system, operation, or weapon system elements of information to be classified.
All of the following are authorized sources for derivative classification except:
A. A Security Classification Guide (SCG)
B: Unconfirmed source
C. DD Form 254, DoD Contract Security Classification Specification
D. An existing properly marked source document
[] What derivative classification concept is used to classify this document?
A: Classification by Compilation
B. Revealed by
C. Contained in
D. Directives
A. Creating new classified materials from properly marked, existing classified source materials and marking them accordigly.
B. Extracting, paraphrasing, restating, or generating in a new form, information that is already classified.
C. Carrying forward the correct classification level for classified information used to generate new materials or documents.
D: Making an initial determination that information requires protection against unauthorized disclosure in the interest of national security.
Which of the following are authorized sources for derivative classification?
A: A properly marked source dicument
B. DODM 5100.76
C. You level of expertise with the document
D: SCG
E. NISPOM
F. The FSO or SM
---
&&&&&&&&&
Derivative classification is:
A. Duplicating or reproducing existing classified documents or material.
B. Only performed by appointed personnel.
C: The process of using existing classified information to create new documents or material and marking the new material consistent with the classification markings that apply to the source information.
D. The initial determination that information requires protection against unauthorized disclosure in the interest of national security.
Why must derivative classifiers use authorized sources of classification guidance only?
A. Other sources cannot be trusted.
B. General rules about classification are often wrong.
C: To ensure original classification of information is maintained.
D. There are no other sources.
Select ALL the correct responses. Derivative classifiers must:
A: Have access to classification guidance
B. Question classifications assigned by the OCA and correct them immediately to protect national security
C: Analyze and evaluate information to identify elements that require classification
D. Develop a clear, unambiguous method of marking classified information
All of the following are steps in derivative classification except:
A. Carrying forward that determination into new material.
B: Making the initial determination that information requires protection against unauthorized disclosure in the interest of national security.
C. Marking the information to show its classified status.
D. Determining wether information has been classified properly.
All of the following are steps in derivative classification EXCEPT:
A. Analyze material to be classified.
B. Seek additional guidance to resolve uncertainty.
C: Make recommendations for others to mark the new document.
D. Use authorized sources for guidance.
A Security Classification Guide (SCG) is:
A: A collection of precise, comprehensive guidance about specific program, system, operation, or weapon system elements of information to be classified.
B. A document that provides basic guidance and regulatory requirements for the DOD Information Security Program.
C. An existing classified document, from which information is extracted, paraphrased, restated, and/or generated in a new form for inclusion in another document.
D. A document that defines how to mark a classified document.
If the authorized sources do not provide sufficient guidance, you should FIRST:
A. Rely on your memory
B: Ask your Security Manager or Facility Security Officer (FSO)
C. Ask the OCA
D. Ask your Quality Assurance Manager
Information taken from an existing classified source and generated into another form or medium, such as a video, DVD, or CD is an example of _______
A. Extracting
B. Paraphrasing
C: Generating
D. Downloading
Select ALL the correct responses. The concept of "revealed by" includes which of the following?
A: Classified information comes from an authorized source into a new document.
B: reader can deduce the classified information by performing additional interpretation or analysis.
C: No additional interpretation or analysis is needed to determine the classification of the information.
D: Classified information is not clearly or explicitly stated in the source document.
The source document states:
(S) The process takes three hours to complete.
The new document states:
(S) The process takes three hours to complete.
Which concept was used to determine the derivative classification of the new document?
A: Contained in
B. Extension
C. Classification by Compilation
D. Revealed by
The source document states:
(S) The exercise will begin on 4 May and end on 25 May
(U) Elements of this unit will participate in the exercise
(U) Unit members participating will be Barkley and James
The Security Classification Guide (SCG) states:
(U) Which unit will participate in the exercise
(S) Exercise dates
(U) Participating members of the unit
The new document states:
(S) Barkley and James cannot attend training during the exercise. They must attend before 4 May or after 25 May.
Identify the concept used to determine the derivative classification of the new document.
A. Contained in
B. Directed by
C: Revealed by
D. Classification by compilation
Is it possible for classification to be raised if your new material combines pieces of information that are not individually classified? If so, what concept is used to derivatively classify the statement in the new document?
A. Directed by
B. Contained in
C: Classification by Compilation
D. Revealed by
Besides protecting national security, information may be classified if it:
A: Pertains to military plans, weapon systems or operations
B. Seems like it should be classified
C. Prevents dissemination to other organizations
D. Prevents embarrassment
Information may be classified if it is owned by the U.S. Government, its unauthorized disclosure could embarrass the Government but not harm national security, and it concerns failed scientific research.
A. True
B: False
To promote information sharing, certain guidelines must be followed in DOD Manual 5200.01, Volumes 1 and 3, when classifying and marking information.
A. True
B: False
You may be subject to criminal sanctions, such as incarceration, if you engage in the unauthorized disclosure of information.
A: True
B. False
If you are a military personnel and you knowingly leaked classified information to an unauthorized user, what sanctions might be imposed on you?
A: Incarceration.
B: Loss of pay.
C: Dishonorable discharge.
D. None, since you thought the user had the proper need-to-know and security eligibility to receive the information.
Which of the following are Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) sanctions?
A. Dishonorable discharge
B. Incarceration
C. Loss of rank
D: All of the above
You formally challenge the classification of information and the classifying agency provides a partial response. What is your recourse if the classifying agency does not provide a full response within 120 days?
A. Re-classify the information at the level you believe is correct and communicate the new classification via a revised Security Classification Guide (SCG).
B: Have the right to forward the challenge to the Interagency Security Classification Appeals Panel (ISCAP).
C. Drop the challenge.
D. Contact another OCA until you get the answer you desire.
The source document states:
(S) The exercise will begin on 4 May and end on 25 May
(U) Elements of this unit will participate in the exercise
(U) Unit members participating will be Barkley and James
The Security Classification Guide (SCG) states:
(U) The unit will participate in the exercise
(S) The exercise dates
(U) Participating members of the unit
The new document states:
The exercise will begin 4 May and end on 25 May.
What is the classification of the new document?
A. Confidential
B. Top Secret
C. Unclassified
D: Secret
The document that provides basic guidance and regulatory requirements for derivative classification for DoD personnel is:
A. Executive Order 12968, Acces to Classified Information
B. Dod 5200.1-M, Information Management Manual
C. Dod 5220.22-M, National Industrial Security Operating Manual (NISPOM)
D: DoDM 5200.01, Volumes 1-4, DoD Information Securitu Program
Who bears principal responsibility for derivative classification accuracy in new products?
A. Supervisors of derivative classifiers
B. Original classifiers
C: Derivative classifiers
D. Quality assurance managers
When derivatively classifying a document one must carefully analyze the material they classify.
A: True
B. False
Which is the primary source for derivative classification?
A. Properly marked source document
B. Classified working paper
C. An organizational Standing Operating Procedure (SOP)
D: Security Classification Guide (SCG)
Each of these ways of incorporating classified source material into new material except:
A. Extracting
B: Planning
C. Generating
D. Paraphrasing/Restating
All of the following are concepts you can use to determine the classification level of the material you create EXCEPT:
A. Classification by Compilation
B. Revealed by
C: Directed by
D. Contained in
When derivative classifiers incorporate classified information from existing content into a new document, and no additional interpretation or analysis is needed to deduce the classification of that information, that is an example of the concept of _______
A: Contained in
B. Directed by
C. Revealed by
D. Classification by Compilation
Which of the following statements apply to the classification concept of "Revealed by"?
A: Needs additional interpretation or analysis to deduce the classification.
B. Applies when information is extracted word-for-word, paraphrased, or restated.
C. Applies when information is contained in Security Classification Guides (SCGs).
D. Explains the basis for classification on the face of the document or text.
The concept that involves combining or associating individual elements of unclassified information to reveal an additional association or relationship that warrants protection is called ________
A. Contained in
B: Classification by Compilation
C. Revealed by
D. Directed by
In order to classify information, the information must concern at least one of the _____ categories specified in Executive Order 13526.
A. 3
B. 10
C: 8
D. 5
Cleared contractor employees are subject to sanctions for violating any policies in the:
A. DODM 5200.01, DOD Information Security Program
B. DODM 5105.21, Sensitive Compartmented Information (SCI) Administrative Security Manual
C: National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM)
D. DODM 5200.02, Procedures for the DOD Personnel Security Program
Which of the following are criminal sanctions?
A. Loss of Federal retirement benefits
B. Fines
C. Incarceration
D: All of the above
The properly marked source document states:
(C) The training exercise will last three days
(S) The training exercise will begin 21 April
The Security Classification Guide (SCG) states:
(C) The length of the training exercise
(S) The dates of the training exercise
The new document states:
( ) The training exercise lasts three days, ending on 24 April.
What is the classification of the statement in the new document?
A. Unclassified
B: Secret
C. Confidential
D. Top Secret
========================
_____________
The process of determining wether informationm has already been originally classified, and if it has, ensuring that it continues to be identified as classified by markings or similar means when included in newly created materials is called:
A. Management classification
B. Original classification
C. Responsible classification
D: Derivative classification
Each of these ways of incorporating classified source material into new material except:
A. Extracting
B: Planning
C. Generating
D. Paraphrasing/Restating
Who is responsible for providing contractors proper classification guidance during the performance for a contract?
A. Security Manager
B. Facility Security Officer (FSO)
C: Goverment Contracting Activity (GCA)
All cleared DoD civilian, military, and contractor personnel who generate or create classified material from authorized classified sources are derivative classifieers.
A: True
B. False
If the classification in the existing content seems incorrect, or there is conflicting guidance from authorized sources, you are required to seek further guidance.
A: True
B. False
One of the most important responsibilities derivative classifiers have is to analyze and correct the original classification authority's decisions.
A. True
B: False
Information taken directly from an existing classified source and stated verbatim in a new or different document is an example of *.
A. Restating
B: Extracting
C. Generating
D. Paraphrasing
When using the derivative classification concept of compilation, you must place a clearly worded explanation of the basis for classification by complilation in the face of the document or include it in the text.
A: True
B. False
[] What concept is used to derivatively classify the new document?
A: Revealed by
B. Classification by Compilation
C. Contained in
D. Directives
You may be subject to administrative, Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ), or criminal sanctions if you engage in any of the following except:
A. Improperly classifying or continuing classification of information
B: Submitting a formal challenge to information that may be improperly classified
C. Creating or continuting a Special Access Program (SAP) against DoD policy
D. Unauthorized disclosure of classified information
All of the following are responsibilities of derivative classifiers except:
A. Derivative classifiers must possess expertise in the subject matter on which thay are creating documentation, as well as classified management and marking techniques.
B: Derivative classifiers must have original classification authority.
C. Derivative classifiers must understand derivative classification policies and procedures.
D. Derivative classifiers must have ready access to classification guidance.
Which of the following is an authorized source for derivative classification?
A. Subject matter expert's (SME) opinion
B. Working paper
C. a and b
D. a only
E: None of the above
"Contained in" applies when a properly marked souce document contains classified information that has been extracted word-for-word and placed into the new document.
A: True
B. False
Because of the importace of classification, but also its inherent limitaions and costs, it is crucial that derivative classifiers follow appropriate procedures and observe all requirements.
A: True
B. False
All of the following are ways to promote the sharing of information within the Federal government, across the state, local, and tribal governments and with coalition partners, law enforcement, and the general public except:
A: Use dissemination control markings
B. Avoid over-classification
C. Avoid unnecessary classification
To be classified or maintained as classified, information must meet all of the following criteria except:
A. The unauthorized disclosure of the information must be reasonably expected to cause damage, serious damage, or exceptionally grave damage to national security.
B. The information must concern at least one fo the eight categories specified in Section 1.4 of Executive Order 13526.
C. The information must be owned by, produced by or for, or under the control of the U.S. government.
D: The unauthorized disclosure of the information couse cause embarrassment to the U.S. Governemnt.
Only people with authority to make original classification decisions may derivativelt classify documents.
A. True
B: Flase
DoD and contractor personnel must receive initial training in the proper application of derivative classification principles prior to derivatively classifying any materials and they must receive refresher training at least once every * years or their derivative classification authority is suspended.
A. Three
B: Two
C. Five
Select the true statement concerning derivative classification.
A. Only appointed individuals may perform derivative classification.
B. Consulting your Facility Security Officer or security manager is the first step in the derivative classification process.
C. Photocopying a Secret document and marking the photocopy Secret is derivative classification.
D: Derivative classifiers are responsible for analyzing and evaluating information to identify elements that require classification.
Which of the following statements apply to the classification concept of classification by compilation?
A: Applies when two pieces of information cause for classification or increase in classification.
B. Applies when information is extracted word-for-word, paraphrased, or restarted.
C. Additional interpretation or analysis is needed to deduce the classification.
D. Applies when information is contained in Security Classification Guides (SCGs).
If you suspect information has been improperly or unnecessarily classified, what should you do first?
A. Initiate a formal challenge.
B: Discuss you concerns with you security manager or supervisor.
C. Contact the original classification authority.
Which of the following is a valid reason to classify information?
A: To protect national security
B. To restrain competition
C. To prevent embarrassment
D. To conceal violations of law, inefficiencies, or errors
E. To protect scientific research not related to national security.
[
***A Security Classification Guide (SCG) is:
A. A document that defines how to mark a classified document.
B. A document that provides basic guidance and regulatory requirements for the DoD Information Security Program.
C. An existing classified document, from which information is extracted, paraphrased, restarted, and/or generated in a new form for inclusion in another document.
D: A collection if precise, comprehensive guidance about specific program, system, operation, or weapon system elements of information to be classified.
All of the following are authorized sources for derivative classification except:
A. A Security Classification Guide (SCG)
B: Unconfirmed source
C. DD Form 254, DoD Contract Security Classification Specification
D. An existing properly marked source document
[] What derivative classification concept is used to classify this document?
A: Classification by Compilation
B. Revealed by
C. Contained in
D. Directives
#22
Certifications / IPv6 Security Essentials
Last post by Richard - Nov 13, 2023, 11:34 AM>> IPv6 Security Essentials <<
IPv6 introduces the concept of extension headers. What IPv6 header field facilitates the use of multiple extension headers within a single packet?
-TTL
-ToS
-Flow Label
+Next Header
What DNS record is used to identify an IPv6 host?
+AAAA
-PTR
-A
-CNAME
What protocol replaces ARP for IP-to-MAC resolution in IPv6?
-ARPv6
-RARP
+Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP)
-IPv6 still uses ARP
IPv6 is more secure than IPv4 because packets are automatically encrypted with IPSec.
-True
+False
IPv4 addresses are written in dotted-decimal. How are IPv6 addresses written?
-Dotted Decimal
-Binary
+Colon Hexadecimal
-Colon Decimal
What is the primary driver for IPv6 implementation?
-Creating a faster Internet
+IPv4 Address exhaustion
-Better end-to-end communications
-Support the Internet of Things (IoT)
What is Teredo?
-Potential IPv6 attack vector
-Automatic tunneling protocol
-IPv6 transition mechanism
+All of the above
MAC and IP address spoofing is no longer possible in IPv6.
-True
+False
How many bits are IPv6 addresses?
+128-bits
-128-bytes
-40-bits
-32-bits
Intermediate routers automatically fragment IPv6 packets when the packet size exceeds the MTU for the destination link.
-True
-False
IPv6 introduces the concept of extension headers. What IPv6 header field facilitates the use of multiple extension headers within a single packet?
-TTL
-ToS
-Flow Label
+Next Header
What DNS record is used to identify an IPv6 host?
+AAAA
-PTR
-A
-CNAME
What protocol replaces ARP for IP-to-MAC resolution in IPv6?
-ARPv6
-RARP
+Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP)
-IPv6 still uses ARP
IPv6 is more secure than IPv4 because packets are automatically encrypted with IPSec.
-True
+False
IPv4 addresses are written in dotted-decimal. How are IPv6 addresses written?
-Dotted Decimal
-Binary
+Colon Hexadecimal
-Colon Decimal
What is the primary driver for IPv6 implementation?
-Creating a faster Internet
+IPv4 Address exhaustion
-Better end-to-end communications
-Support the Internet of Things (IoT)
What is Teredo?
-Potential IPv6 attack vector
-Automatic tunneling protocol
-IPv6 transition mechanism
+All of the above
MAC and IP address spoofing is no longer possible in IPv6.
-True
+False
How many bits are IPv6 addresses?
+128-bits
-128-bytes
-40-bits
-32-bits
Intermediate routers automatically fragment IPv6 packets when the packet size exceeds the MTU for the destination link.
-True
-False
#23
Certifications / Cyber Risk Management for Tech...
Last post by Richard - Nov 13, 2023, 11:29 AM>> Cyber Risk Management for Technicians <<
Which NIST special publication is a guide for Applying the Risk Management Framework to Federal Information Systems: A Security Life Cycle Approach?
A NIST SP 800 39
B NIST SP 800 53A
C NIST SP 800 53
D. NIST SP 800 37
Which of the following is a part of the Examine Method?
A List processes that should be running
B Making the information available to all information system users
C. Inspecting the physical security measures
D Testing access control
If the cost of controls exceeds the benefit the organization may choose to accept the risk instead.
A. True
B False
Which OCTAVE process involves collecting information about important assets and security requirements and threats and current organizational strengths and vulnerabilities from managers of selected operational areas?
A. Identify Operational Area Knowledge
B Create Threat Profiles
C Identify Senior Management Knowledge
D Identify Staff Knowledge
Open Source Security (OSSEC) is what?
A. A host based security system that monitors for changes
B A network based security system that sends alert messages
C An email based security system that scans emails for vulnerabilities.
D None of the above
Which of the following describes NetScan Tools Pro?
A A network debugging and exploration tool
B A powerful command line packet analyzer
C A tool that provides advanced network trace routing
D. A collection of Internet information gathering and network troubleshooting utilities
In NIST SP 800 53 the security control structure consists of all the following components except for:
A Priority and baseline allocation
B Supplemental guidance
C Control enhancements
D. All of these are in the security control structure
In order to automate host characteristic monitoring you can compare baselines and snapshots with syslog.
A True
B. False
Which of the following is a step in detecting and analysing host changes?
A Create a current snapshot of your host
B Create a baseline of your host
C Compare your snapshot to your baseline
D. All of the above
Which tier of Risk Management is associated with Enterprise Architecture?
A Tier 1 Organization (Governance)
B. Tier 2 Mission (Business Process)
C Tier 3 Information System (Environment of Operations)
D. None of the above
Kismet is different from a normal network sniffer such as Wireshark or tcpdump because it separates and identifies different wireless networks in the area.
A. True
B False
What type of analysis involves using scales to suit circumstances and allows for quick identification of potential risks as well as vulnerable assets and resources?
A Quantitative Analysis
B Audit Analysis
C. Qualitative Analysis
D Cost/benefit analysis
NIST SP 800 30 defines risk as a function of the likelihood of a given threat source exercising a particular potential vulnerability and the resulting impact of that adverse event on the organization.
A. True
B False
Which step of a risk assessment uses the history of system attacks?
A. Step 2: Threat Identification
B Step 3: Vulnerability Identification
C Step 4: Control Analysis
D Step 5: Likelihood Determination
One strategy for determining the proper level of acceptable risk is to:
A Eliminate the asset exposure to risk or eliminate the asset altogether
B There is no level of acceptable risk
C. Determine a point where cost of mitigation is less than cost of loss
D Shift responsibility for the risk to a third party (ISP MSSP Insurance etc.)
The threat source is highly motivated and sufficiently capable and controls to prevent the vulnerability from being exercised are ineffective. Which likelihood rating does this describe?
A. High
B Medium
C Low
D None of the above
Which of the following is not part of the process for assessing security controls according to NIST SP 800 53A 1?
A. Study
B. Develop
C Conduct
D Analyze
What tool would be best to automatically detect your network and construct a complete and easy to view network map?
A Firewalk
B Path Analyser Pro
C. LANsurveyor
D SNMP
What is the high water mark for an information system?
A Highest Potential Threat value assigned to each Security Objective (AIC) for all Security Categories resident on the system and the overall classification of the system.
B. Highest Potential Impact value assigned to each Security Objective (AIC) for all Security Categories resident on the system and the overall classification of the system.
C Lowest Potential Vulnerability value assigned to each Security Objective (AIC) for all Security Categories resident on the system and the overall classification of the system.
D Marks on the server room wall to evaluate level of water during a flood.
Which of the following families of controls belongs to the technical class of controls?
A. Physical and Environmental Protection
B System and Information Integrity
C System and Services Acquisition
D. Identification and Authentication
FIPS 200 is:
A A threat assessment program
B A document that lays out the incident response life cycle
C A short document describing categorization of information and information systems
D. A short document that describes the minimum security requirements for information and information systems
In risk management people and information and technology are examples of?
A. Assets
B Processes
C Services
D None of the above
What is the order of the Change Control Process?
A Request : Approval : Build : Impact Assessment : If successful Implement
B. Request : Impact Assessment : Approval : Build and or Test : Implement
C. Request : Impact Assessment : Build and or Test : Implement
D Request : Impact Assessment : Build and or Test : Approval : Implement
Which risk comes from a failure of the controls to properly mitigate risk?
A Inherent risk
B Residual Risk
C. Control Risk
D All of the above
The following should be taken into account when accepting the residual risk inherent in the project.
A The sensitivity or the criticality of the assets involved
B Uncertainty incorporated in the risk assessment approach itself
C The ability to shift responsibility for the risk to a third party
D. All of the above
Which NIST special publication is a guide for Applying the Risk Management Framework to Federal Information Systems: A Security Life Cycle Approach?
A NIST SP 800 39
B NIST SP 800 53A
C NIST SP 800 53
D. NIST SP 800 37
Which of the following is a part of the Examine Method?
A List processes that should be running
B Making the information available to all information system users
C. Inspecting the physical security measures
D Testing access control
If the cost of controls exceeds the benefit the organization may choose to accept the risk instead.
A. True
B False
Which OCTAVE process involves collecting information about important assets and security requirements and threats and current organizational strengths and vulnerabilities from managers of selected operational areas?
A. Identify Operational Area Knowledge
B Create Threat Profiles
C Identify Senior Management Knowledge
D Identify Staff Knowledge
Open Source Security (OSSEC) is what?
A. A host based security system that monitors for changes
B A network based security system that sends alert messages
C An email based security system that scans emails for vulnerabilities.
D None of the above
Which of the following describes NetScan Tools Pro?
A A network debugging and exploration tool
B A powerful command line packet analyzer
C A tool that provides advanced network trace routing
D. A collection of Internet information gathering and network troubleshooting utilities
In NIST SP 800 53 the security control structure consists of all the following components except for:
A Priority and baseline allocation
B Supplemental guidance
C Control enhancements
D. All of these are in the security control structure
In order to automate host characteristic monitoring you can compare baselines and snapshots with syslog.
A True
B. False
Which of the following is a step in detecting and analysing host changes?
A Create a current snapshot of your host
B Create a baseline of your host
C Compare your snapshot to your baseline
D. All of the above
Which tier of Risk Management is associated with Enterprise Architecture?
A Tier 1 Organization (Governance)
B. Tier 2 Mission (Business Process)
C Tier 3 Information System (Environment of Operations)
D. None of the above
Kismet is different from a normal network sniffer such as Wireshark or tcpdump because it separates and identifies different wireless networks in the area.
A. True
B False
What type of analysis involves using scales to suit circumstances and allows for quick identification of potential risks as well as vulnerable assets and resources?
A Quantitative Analysis
B Audit Analysis
C. Qualitative Analysis
D Cost/benefit analysis
NIST SP 800 30 defines risk as a function of the likelihood of a given threat source exercising a particular potential vulnerability and the resulting impact of that adverse event on the organization.
A. True
B False
Which step of a risk assessment uses the history of system attacks?
A. Step 2: Threat Identification
B Step 3: Vulnerability Identification
C Step 4: Control Analysis
D Step 5: Likelihood Determination
One strategy for determining the proper level of acceptable risk is to:
A Eliminate the asset exposure to risk or eliminate the asset altogether
B There is no level of acceptable risk
C. Determine a point where cost of mitigation is less than cost of loss
D Shift responsibility for the risk to a third party (ISP MSSP Insurance etc.)
The threat source is highly motivated and sufficiently capable and controls to prevent the vulnerability from being exercised are ineffective. Which likelihood rating does this describe?
A. High
B Medium
C Low
D None of the above
Which of the following is not part of the process for assessing security controls according to NIST SP 800 53A 1?
A. Study
B. Develop
C Conduct
D Analyze
What tool would be best to automatically detect your network and construct a complete and easy to view network map?
A Firewalk
B Path Analyser Pro
C. LANsurveyor
D SNMP
What is the high water mark for an information system?
A Highest Potential Threat value assigned to each Security Objective (AIC) for all Security Categories resident on the system and the overall classification of the system.
B. Highest Potential Impact value assigned to each Security Objective (AIC) for all Security Categories resident on the system and the overall classification of the system.
C Lowest Potential Vulnerability value assigned to each Security Objective (AIC) for all Security Categories resident on the system and the overall classification of the system.
D Marks on the server room wall to evaluate level of water during a flood.
Which of the following families of controls belongs to the technical class of controls?
A. Physical and Environmental Protection
B System and Information Integrity
C System and Services Acquisition
D. Identification and Authentication
FIPS 200 is:
A A threat assessment program
B A document that lays out the incident response life cycle
C A short document describing categorization of information and information systems
D. A short document that describes the minimum security requirements for information and information systems
In risk management people and information and technology are examples of?
A. Assets
B Processes
C Services
D None of the above
What is the order of the Change Control Process?
A Request : Approval : Build : Impact Assessment : If successful Implement
B. Request : Impact Assessment : Approval : Build and or Test : Implement
C. Request : Impact Assessment : Build and or Test : Implement
D Request : Impact Assessment : Build and or Test : Approval : Implement
Which risk comes from a failure of the controls to properly mitigate risk?
A Inherent risk
B Residual Risk
C. Control Risk
D All of the above
The following should be taken into account when accepting the residual risk inherent in the project.
A The sensitivity or the criticality of the assets involved
B Uncertainty incorporated in the risk assessment approach itself
C The ability to shift responsibility for the risk to a third party
D. All of the above
#24
Certifications / Re: CompTIA Security+
Last post by Richard - Nov 13, 2023, 11:25 AMCompTIA Security+ Continuing Education (CE) *LINKS*
>> FedVTE << Federal Virtual Training Environment
> Login: https://fedvte.usalearning.gov
> View Courses: https://fedvte.usalearning.gov/courses_all_cybersecurity.php
Complete a training course
https://www.comptia.org/continuing-education/choose/renewing-with-multiple-activities/training-and-higher-education
https://www.comptia.org/continuing-education/learn/comptia-continuing-education-program-faq\
Credly - Digital Badges
: Login - https://www.credly.com/users/sign_in
: Badges - https://www.credly.com/earner/earned
> CCNA - https://www.credly.com/badges/999d5e27-f831-4993-8bd6-688a1bc3c9ea
> Network+ - https://www.credly.com/badges/386c7087-4ae2-428f-8272-848d3d32a1eb
> Security+ - https://www.credly.com/badges/9afefb36-62b5-4c46-9ac1-24a492035c4f
>> FedVTE << Federal Virtual Training Environment
> Login: https://fedvte.usalearning.gov
> View Courses: https://fedvte.usalearning.gov/courses_all_cybersecurity.php
Complete a training course
https://www.comptia.org/continuing-education/choose/renewing-with-multiple-activities/training-and-higher-education
https://www.comptia.org/continuing-education/learn/comptia-continuing-education-program-faq\
Credly - Digital Badges
: Login - https://www.credly.com/users/sign_in
: Badges - https://www.credly.com/earner/earned
> CCNA - https://www.credly.com/badges/999d5e27-f831-4993-8bd6-688a1bc3c9ea
> Network+ - https://www.credly.com/badges/386c7087-4ae2-428f-8272-848d3d32a1eb
> Security+ - https://www.credly.com/badges/9afefb36-62b5-4c46-9ac1-24a492035c4f
#25
Certifications / CompTIA Security+
Last post by Richard - Nov 13, 2023, 10:40 AMCompTIA Security+ Continuing Education (CE) *ABOUT*
1] Read/Sign Code of Ethics Policy (check both boxes at bottom)
@https://www.certmetrics.com/comptia/candidate/ce_sign_agreement.aspx
2] Pay CE Maintenance Fees (using PayPal)
@https://www.certmetrics.com/comptia/candidate/ecom_creq_ce_list.aspx
> Select CE Intent Level [CE CompTIA Security+] > Submit
3] Add CEUs (50 for Security+) from FedVTE (11APR2023 Catalog)
> Select CE Intent Level [CE CompTIA Security+] > Submit
3A] Printer > Select Activity > Training and Higher Education >
3B] *Optional* Work Experience for 3 years (9 CEUs)
- Supervisor-signed letter for 1 year work period
Add Continuing Education (CE) Credits: https://www.certmetrics.com/comptia/candidate/ce_summary.aspx
> Add CEUs > Submit(S+) > Training and Higher Education > Completed a Training Course (1 unit per hour) for Security+ CEUs > Accept Activity > Training Provider / Certification Vendor: U.S. Department of Homeland Security / FedVTE
>> Network-Specific Courses [HRS]
[13] Cisco CCENT Self-Study Prep
[15] Cisco CCNA Security Self-Study Prep*
> 12/19/22, 12/28/21
[09] Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) with IDS/IPS
[05] IPv6 Security Essentials Course*
> 12/8/22, 12/28/21
[03] Network Layer 1 & 2 Troubleshooting
[18] Network Security
[13] (x) Offensive and Defensive Network Operations (2015 NO LONGER VALID)
[09] Wireless Network Security (WNS)*
> NO LONGER VALID AS OF 2013
1] Read/Sign Code of Ethics Policy (check both boxes at bottom)
@https://www.certmetrics.com/comptia/candidate/ce_sign_agreement.aspx
2] Pay CE Maintenance Fees (using PayPal)
@https://www.certmetrics.com/comptia/candidate/ecom_creq_ce_list.aspx
> Select CE Intent Level [CE CompTIA Security+] > Submit
3] Add CEUs (50 for Security+) from FedVTE (11APR2023 Catalog)
> Select CE Intent Level [CE CompTIA Security+] > Submit
3A] Printer > Select Activity > Training and Higher Education >
3B] *Optional* Work Experience for 3 years (9 CEUs)
- Supervisor-signed letter for 1 year work period
Add Continuing Education (CE) Credits: https://www.certmetrics.com/comptia/candidate/ce_summary.aspx
> Add CEUs > Submit(S+) > Training and Higher Education > Completed a Training Course (1 unit per hour) for Security+ CEUs > Accept Activity > Training Provider / Certification Vendor: U.S. Department of Homeland Security / FedVTE
>> Network-Specific Courses [HRS]
[13] Cisco CCENT Self-Study Prep
[15] Cisco CCNA Security Self-Study Prep*
> 12/19/22, 12/28/21
[09] Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) with IDS/IPS
[05] IPv6 Security Essentials Course*
> 12/8/22, 12/28/21
[03] Network Layer 1 & 2 Troubleshooting
[18] Network Security
[13] (x) Offensive and Defensive Network Operations (2015 NO LONGER VALID)
[09] Wireless Network Security (WNS)*
> NO LONGER VALID AS OF 2013
#26
General Discussion / Work
Last post by Richard - Nov 06, 2023, 06:43 AMNDMS/NetINFO = https://ahdsnrfktq01v.ahds.nmci.navy.mil \ https://ahdsnrfktq02v.ahds.nmci.navy.mil
SM = https://servman/sm/index.do \ https://10.0.14.122/sm/index.do
eMASS = https://navy.emass.apps.mil/Public/SiteAgreement
Manual Flow Inputs App = https://play.apps.appsplatform.us
Azure = https://myaccount.azure.us
Office = https://www.ohome.apps.mil
Teams = https://dod.teams.microsoft.us
Flankspeed TFN_Leads = https://flankspeed.sharepoint-mil.us/sites/TFN_Leads
Automatic Key Recovery Agent = https://ara-5.csd.disa.mil/ara/search
Leidos = https://leidos.unanet.biz/leidos/action/home
KForce = https://www.estaff365.com/Account/Login?ReturnUrl=%2fAssignment
SM = https://servman/sm/index.do \ https://10.0.14.122/sm/index.do
eMASS = https://navy.emass.apps.mil/Public/SiteAgreement
Manual Flow Inputs App = https://play.apps.appsplatform.us
Azure = https://myaccount.azure.us
Office = https://www.ohome.apps.mil
Teams = https://dod.teams.microsoft.us
Flankspeed TFN_Leads = https://flankspeed.sharepoint-mil.us/sites/TFN_Leads
Automatic Key Recovery Agent = https://ara-5.csd.disa.mil/ara/search
Leidos = https://leidos.unanet.biz/leidos/action/home
KForce = https://www.estaff365.com/Account/Login?ReturnUrl=%2fAssignment
#27
[ # ]
7-Zip 23.01 (x64) - Igor Pavlov - 5.52 MB
[ A ]
ActivID ActivClient 7.3.1 x64 - HID Global Corporation - 107 MB
Adobe Acrobat 2020 20.005.30524 - Adobe Systems Incorporated - 2.68 GB
Adobe Genuine Service 8.3.0.61 - Adobe Inc.
Apple Mobile Device Support 17.0.0.21 - Apple Inc. - 109 MB
Apple Software Update 2.7.0.3 - Apple Inc. - 4.05 MB
AV1 Video Extension - Microsoft Corporation - 3.60 MB
AVG TuneUp 23.3.15198.8344 - AVG - 293 MB
[ B ]
Battle.net - Blizzard Entertainment
Bonjour 3.1.0.1 - Apple Inc. 2.02 MB
Bubble Shooter Premium
[ C ]
Calculator - Microsoft Corporation - 36.0 KB
Camera - Microsoft Corporation - 16.0 KB
CCleaner 6.17.10746 - http://www.piriform.com - 58.14 MB
> 2023.10.19 - https://www.filepuma.com/download/ccleaner_6.17.10746-36807/download
Chrome Remote Desktop 1.0 - Google\Chrome
Chrome Remote Desktop Host 119.0.6045.21 - Google LLC - 48.8 MB
Cortona - Microsoft Corporation - 32.0 KB
[ D ]
Dev Home - Microsoft Corporation - 8.00 KB
Diablo III - Blizzard Entertainment
Disney+ - Disney - 3.38 MB
Docs 1.0 - Google\Chrome
Duke Nukem 3D: 20th Anniversary World Tour - Nerve\Gearbox Software, LLC
[ F ]
Family - Microsoft Corp. - 3.12 MB
Family Tree Maker 2019 24.2.1560 - Software MacKiev - 989 MB
Feedback Hub - Microsoft Corporation - 897 KB
FileZilla 3.65.0 - Tim Kosse - 42.7 MB
[ G ]
Gaming Services - Microsoft Corporation - 16.0 KB
Glary Utilities 6.1.0.1 - http://www.glarysoft.com - 26.81 MB
> 2023.10.31 - https://www.filepuma.com/download/glary_utilities_6.1.0.1-36924/download
Gmail 1.0 - Google\Chrome
Google Chrome (64bit) 119.0.6045.106 - 109.72 MB
> 2023.11.03 - https://www.filepuma.com/download/google_chrome_64bit_119.0.6045.106-36970/download
Google Drive 1.0 - Google\Chrome
[ H ]
HID Credential Management Client 4.0.288 - HID Global Corporation - 55.2 MB
HP Audio Control - Realtek Semiconductor Corp - 16.0 KB
HP Dock Accessory WMI Provider 1.2.0 - HP - 402 KB
HP Documentation 1.0.0.1 - HP Inc.
HP Notifications 1.1.28.1 - HP - 18.8 MB
HP Scan Basic Device Software 51.8.5837.2381 - HP Inc. - 503 MB
HP Security Update Service 4.4.4.170
HP Smart - HP Inc. - 854 KB
HP Support Assistant - HP Inc. - 4.16MB
HP Sure Recover 10.1.15.90 - HP Inc.
HP Sure Run Module 5.0.5.53 - HP Inc.
HP System Information - HP Inc. - 32.0 KB
HP TechPulse 4.23.159 - HP Inc. - 56.6 MB
HP USB-C Dock Audio Headset 6.3.9600.205 - Realtek Semiconductor Corp.
HP USB-C Dock G5 Firmware Installer 1.0.18.0 - HP Inc. 745 KB
HP Wolf Security - Console 11.1.1.565 - HP Inc.
Hulu - 168KB
[ I ]
InstallRoot 5.5 - DoD PKE - 62.2 MB
Intel(R) Computing Improvement Program 2.4.10577 - Intel Corporation - 55.7 MB
Intel(R) Management and Security Status - INTEL CORP - 56.0 KB
Intel(R) Wireless Bluetooth(R) 22.250.0.2 - Intel Corporation - 16.0 MB
Intel(R) Arc(TM) Control 1.73.5335.2 - Intel Corporation - 763 MB
Intel(R) Driver & Support Assistant 23.4.39.9 - Intel - 58.5 MB
Intel(R) Graphics Command Center - INTEL CORP - 317 KB
Intel(R) Optane(TM) Memory and Storage Management - INTEL CORP - 76.0 KB
iPod Support 12.11.3.7 - Apple Inc. - 51.9 MB
iTunes 12.13.0.9 - Apple Inc. 420 MB
[ L ]
Logitech Unifying Software 2.50.25 - Logitech - 4.59 MB
[ M ]
Malwarebytes version 4.6.6.294 - Malwarebytes
Maps - Microsoft Corporation - 8.3.0 MB
McAfee 1.10.252.1 - McAfee,LLC - 182 MB
Media Player - Microsoft Corporation - 456 KB
Microsoft ASP.NET Core 7.0.13.23520 - Microsoft Corporation - 33.8 MB
Microsoft ASP.NET Core 7.0.7.23274 - Microsoft Corporation - 33.8 MB
Microsoft Edge 119.0.2151.44 - Microsoft Corporation
Microsoft Edge Update 1.3.181.5
Microsoft Edge WebView2 Runtime 119.0.2151.44 - Microsoft Corporation
Microsoft GameInput 10.1.22621.3036 - 792 KB
Microsoft Office Professional Plus 2019 16.0.16924.20124 - Microsoft Corporation
7-Zip 23.01 (x64) - Igor Pavlov - 5.52 MB
[ A ]
ActivID ActivClient 7.3.1 x64 - HID Global Corporation - 107 MB
Adobe Acrobat 2020 20.005.30524 - Adobe Systems Incorporated - 2.68 GB
Adobe Genuine Service 8.3.0.61 - Adobe Inc.
Apple Mobile Device Support 17.0.0.21 - Apple Inc. - 109 MB
Apple Software Update 2.7.0.3 - Apple Inc. - 4.05 MB
AV1 Video Extension - Microsoft Corporation - 3.60 MB
AVG TuneUp 23.3.15198.8344 - AVG - 293 MB
[ B ]
Battle.net - Blizzard Entertainment
Bonjour 3.1.0.1 - Apple Inc. 2.02 MB
Bubble Shooter Premium
[ C ]
Calculator - Microsoft Corporation - 36.0 KB
Camera - Microsoft Corporation - 16.0 KB
CCleaner 6.17.10746 - http://www.piriform.com - 58.14 MB
> 2023.10.19 - https://www.filepuma.com/download/ccleaner_6.17.10746-36807/download
Chrome Remote Desktop 1.0 - Google\Chrome
Chrome Remote Desktop Host 119.0.6045.21 - Google LLC - 48.8 MB
Cortona - Microsoft Corporation - 32.0 KB
[ D ]
Dev Home - Microsoft Corporation - 8.00 KB
Diablo III - Blizzard Entertainment
Disney+ - Disney - 3.38 MB
Docs 1.0 - Google\Chrome
Duke Nukem 3D: 20th Anniversary World Tour - Nerve\Gearbox Software, LLC
[ F ]
Family - Microsoft Corp. - 3.12 MB
Family Tree Maker 2019 24.2.1560 - Software MacKiev - 989 MB
Feedback Hub - Microsoft Corporation - 897 KB
FileZilla 3.65.0 - Tim Kosse - 42.7 MB
[ G ]
Gaming Services - Microsoft Corporation - 16.0 KB
Glary Utilities 6.1.0.1 - http://www.glarysoft.com - 26.81 MB
> 2023.10.31 - https://www.filepuma.com/download/glary_utilities_6.1.0.1-36924/download
Gmail 1.0 - Google\Chrome
Google Chrome (64bit) 119.0.6045.106 - 109.72 MB
> 2023.11.03 - https://www.filepuma.com/download/google_chrome_64bit_119.0.6045.106-36970/download
Google Drive 1.0 - Google\Chrome
[ H ]
HID Credential Management Client 4.0.288 - HID Global Corporation - 55.2 MB
HP Audio Control - Realtek Semiconductor Corp - 16.0 KB
HP Dock Accessory WMI Provider 1.2.0 - HP - 402 KB
HP Documentation 1.0.0.1 - HP Inc.
HP Notifications 1.1.28.1 - HP - 18.8 MB
HP Scan Basic Device Software 51.8.5837.2381 - HP Inc. - 503 MB
HP Security Update Service 4.4.4.170
HP Smart - HP Inc. - 854 KB
HP Support Assistant - HP Inc. - 4.16MB
HP Sure Recover 10.1.15.90 - HP Inc.
HP Sure Run Module 5.0.5.53 - HP Inc.
HP System Information - HP Inc. - 32.0 KB
HP TechPulse 4.23.159 - HP Inc. - 56.6 MB
HP USB-C Dock Audio Headset 6.3.9600.205 - Realtek Semiconductor Corp.
HP USB-C Dock G5 Firmware Installer 1.0.18.0 - HP Inc. 745 KB
HP Wolf Security - Console 11.1.1.565 - HP Inc.
Hulu - 168KB
[ I ]
InstallRoot 5.5 - DoD PKE - 62.2 MB
Intel(R) Computing Improvement Program 2.4.10577 - Intel Corporation - 55.7 MB
Intel(R) Management and Security Status - INTEL CORP - 56.0 KB
Intel(R) Wireless Bluetooth(R) 22.250.0.2 - Intel Corporation - 16.0 MB
Intel(R) Arc(TM) Control 1.73.5335.2 - Intel Corporation - 763 MB
Intel(R) Driver & Support Assistant 23.4.39.9 - Intel - 58.5 MB
Intel(R) Graphics Command Center - INTEL CORP - 317 KB
Intel(R) Optane(TM) Memory and Storage Management - INTEL CORP - 76.0 KB
iPod Support 12.11.3.7 - Apple Inc. - 51.9 MB
iTunes 12.13.0.9 - Apple Inc. 420 MB
[ L ]
Logitech Unifying Software 2.50.25 - Logitech - 4.59 MB
[ M ]
Malwarebytes version 4.6.6.294 - Malwarebytes
Maps - Microsoft Corporation - 8.3.0 MB
McAfee 1.10.252.1 - McAfee,LLC - 182 MB
Media Player - Microsoft Corporation - 456 KB
Microsoft ASP.NET Core 7.0.13.23520 - Microsoft Corporation - 33.8 MB
Microsoft ASP.NET Core 7.0.7.23274 - Microsoft Corporation - 33.8 MB
Microsoft Edge 119.0.2151.44 - Microsoft Corporation
Microsoft Edge Update 1.3.181.5
Microsoft Edge WebView2 Runtime 119.0.2151.44 - Microsoft Corporation
Microsoft GameInput 10.1.22621.3036 - 792 KB
Microsoft Office Professional Plus 2019 16.0.16924.20124 - Microsoft Corporation
#28
Computers / HP EliteBook 850 G8 Notebook P...
Last post by Richard - Nov 05, 2023, 08:37 AMThunderbolt devices using the Type-C port configuration are not currently supported.
USB Type-C port on the graphics card is not supported.
USB Port Check : FAILED
FAILURE ID : RPN0GX-ASPBRmMFGH4K-8D7G03
PRODUCT ID : 5C229UA
USB Type-C port on the graphics card is not supported.
USB Port Check : FAILED
FAILURE ID : RPN0GX-ASPBRmMFGH4K-8D7G03
PRODUCT ID : 5C229UA
#30
Computers / HP Software and Drivers
Last post by Richard - Oct 27, 2023, 11:58 AMHP Software and Drivers - Updated : 10/27/2023
BIOS-System Firmware
01 - 230925 HP BIOS and System Firmware (S77) - 01.14.20 Rev.A - 14.5 MB - sp149352.exe
BIOS-System Firmware
01 - 230925 HP BIOS and System Firmware (S77) - 01.14.20 Rev.A - 14.5 MB - sp149352.exe